What was the basis for India to claim lands at the Sino India border, ie Aksai Chin and Arunachal Pradesh? There was no India until the British gave independence to the land they stole from China and the whole of the sub Indian continent in 1947. Before 1947, for more than 300 years, the land in the Indian sub continent were loose states of various maharajahs and remnants of ancient empires. There was no border between China and a non existing India. There was no India to talk about.
The Brits came, grabbed all the land and clobbered them together as part of the British colony. The land included those at the present disputed Sino Indian borders that belonged to Qing Dynasty/Republic of China, now called the PRC. The Qing Dynasty and the subsequent Chinese Republic did not accept the British seizure of Chinese territories, including the Southern Tibetan region. The present Arunachal Pradesh was South Tibet. The inhabitants are Sino and Tibetan stocks, not Indians.
When the Brits handed over the land they stole in the region to India in 1947, the British map included two lines, the Johnson Line and the McMahon Line drawn arbitrarily by two Brits as part of the British colony. These were stolen land, like all the colonies all over the world, not legitimate and illegal. No one recognise the rights of the colonial masters to these lands acquired by force, by conquest, by the rule of might is right. The USA, Canada, Australia, New Zealand and many others are stolen lands. Period.
However, the newly created state called India, conveniently accepted the British map and all the lands as their rightful territories, including Aksai Chin, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Nagaland, Ladakh, Khalistan and Kashmir. Is the position of India and its claim to these lands rightful and legal? Even Sikkim was not part of India but now annexed by India.
The West and the AngloSaxon gangsters also conveniently kept quiet about the illegal and illegitimate claims of the Indians. The AngloSaxons were the rogues that seized these lands when China under the Qing Dynasty was very weak, followed by several decades of civil wars in China. The Chinese were then not in a position to reclaim their lands stolen by the Brits, and now claimed by the Indians.
So, how legal and legitimate are the claims of India on Chinese lands stolen during the era of western colonisation? The Indians took back their land stolen by the Brits, and so did Pakistan and Bangladesh. But the Indians conveniently sat on Chinese lands and making themselves the rightful owners, including Kashmir and Khalistan, as the inheritance of the British Empire. Now the Indians are shouting daily that the Chinese are expansionist and aggressors when they are the real expansionist and aggressors, claiming lands that are not rightfully theirs.
Who were the Brits to draw lines on the map to say which part belong to India and which part belong to China? Who gave the Brits such authority? It is so arrogant for India to want to inherit the British lands taken by force from China and the neighbouring regions?
PS. The latest Chinese map is a message by China to India that China would reclaim all the lands stolen by the Brits. China would not allow an inch of its soil to be taken by India. China has lost its patience in negotiating with India with the intent for some trade offs. But arrogant and cocky Indians act defiantly, refusing to negotiate. China's position is now harden. No more compromises, no more give and take. China will strengthen its borders and will strike back if the Indians become adventurous.
India knows that it has no legal basis to claim Chinese lands. So it is going back in history thinking that the loose and scattered regional empires could strengthen its claims and is changing its name to Bharat. The delusional Indians and their super power dream is getting more ludicrous by the day.